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Alle Oberthemen / Business Economics / Behavior, Managment and Organisation

BMO examrelevant (243 Karten)

Sag Danke
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1) Over the past two decades, business schools have added required courses on people skills to
many of their curricula. Why have they done this?
A) Managers no longer need technical skills in subjects such as economics and accounting to
succeed.
B) There is an increased emphasis in controlling employee behavior in the workplace.
C) Managers need to understand human behavior if they are to be effective.
D) These skills enable managers to effectively lead human resources departments.
E) A manager with good people skills can help create a pleasant workplace.
c
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2) Which of the following is most likely to be a belief held by a successful manager?
A) Technical knowledge is all that is needed for success.
B) It is not essential to have sound interpersonal skills.
C) Technical skills are necessary, but insufficient alone for success.
D) Effectiveness is not impacted by human behavior.
E) Technical skills do not influence efficiency.
c (exam)
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6) Which of the following is not one of the four primary management functions?
A) controlling
B) planning
C) staffing
D) organizing
E) leading
c
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7) Which of a manager’s primary roles requires the manager to define an organization’s goals,
establish an overall strategy for achieving these goals and develop a comprehensive hierarchy of
plans to integrate and coordinate activities?
A) controlling
B) planning
C) staffing
D) coordinating
E) leading
b
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8) Determining how tasks are to be grouped is part of which management function?
A) planning
B) leading
C) controlling
D) organizing
E) contemplating
d
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9) Mintzberg concluded that managers perform 10 different, highly interrelated roles. Which of the
following is one of the broad categories into which these roles could be grouped?
A) intrapersonal
B) institutional
C) decisional
D) affective
E) reflective
c
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10) As a manager, one of Joe’s duties is to present awards to outstanding employees within his
department. Which Mintzberg managerial role is Joe acting in when he does this?
A) leadership role
B) liaison role
C) monitor role
D) figurehead role
E) spokesperson role
d  (exam)
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11) According to Mintzberg, one of management’s interpersonal roles is .
A) spokesperson
B) leader
C) negotiator
D) monitor
E) devil’s advocate
b
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12) According to Mintzberg, when a manager searches the organization and its environment for
opportunities and initiates projects to bring about change, the manager is acting in which role?
A) negotiator
B) entrepreneur
C) monitor
D) resource allocator
E) reflective analyst
b
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13) Robert Katz identified three essential skills that managers need to have in order to reach their
goals. What are these skills?
A) technical, decisional and interpersonal
B) technical, human, and conceptual
C) interpersonal, informational and decisional
D) conceptual, communication and networking
E) human, informational and communication
b (exam)
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14) A manager is valued by her colleagues for her ability to perform effective break-even analysis
on upcoming ventures. In this case, her colleagues value her for competencies that fall within
which of Katz’s essential management skills categories?
A) technical
B) communication
C) human
D) conceptual
E) education
a
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15) According to Katz, technical skills encompass the ability to .
A) analyze and diagnose complex situations
B) exchange information and control complex situations
C) apply specialized knowledge or expertise
D) initiate and oversee complex projects
E) communicate effectively with others
c (exam)
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16) Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill in Katz’s structure?
A) decision making.
B) communicating
C) resolving conflicts
D) working as part of a team
E) listening to others
a (exam)
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17) According to Katz, when managers have the mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex
situations, they possess skills.
A) technical
B) leadership
C) problem-solving
D) conceptual
E) reactive
d (exam)
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18) According to Fred Luthans and his associates, which of the following is considered a part of
traditional management?
A) disciplining
B) decision making
C) exchanging routine information
D) acquiring resources
E) investing
b
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19) Which of Luthans’ managerial activities involves socializing, politicking, and interacting with
outsiders?
A) traditional management
B) communicating
C) human resource management
D) networking
E) investing
d (exam)
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20) How does Luthans define a manager’s success?
A) by the quantity and quality of their performance
B) by the satisfaction and commitment of their employees
C) by the rate and quantity of pay raises
D) by the speed of their promotion
E) by their scores on a 360-degree feedback analysis
d (exam)
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21) According to Luthans’ research, successful managers spent more of their time on than
on any other activity.
A) traditional management
B) human resource management
C) networking
D) communicating
E) hiring and firing
c (exam)
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23) The pie charts above show how 5 different managers spent their time. According to Luthans’
research, which manager is most likely to receive more promotions and other rewards associated
with career success?
A) Manager A
B) Manager B
C) Manager C
D) Manager D
E) Manager E
c
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24) While the Functions, Roles, Skills, and Activities approaches to management all differ, they all
recognize that effective and successful managers must develop which of the following?
A) people skills
B) technical skills
C) efficiency
D) entrepreneurialism
E) ability to network
a
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25) An OB study would be least likely to be used to focus on which of the following problems?
A) an increase in absenteeism at a certain company
B) a fall in productivity in one shift of a manufacturing plant
C) a decrease in sales due to growing foreign competition
D) an increase in theft by employees at a retail store
E) excessive turnover in volunteer workers at a non-profit organization
c
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29) In order to predict human behavior, it is best to supplement your intuitive opinions with
information derived in what fashion?
A) common sense
B) direct observation
C) systematic inquiry
D) speculation
E) organizational theory
c
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30) Which of the following is a reason that the study of organizational behavior is useful?
A) Human behavior does not vary a great deal between individuals and situations.
B) Human behavior is not random.
C) Human behavior is not consistent.
D) Human behavior is rarely predictable.
E) Human behavior is often not sensible.
b (exam)
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31) What approach involves managers centering their decisions on the best available scientific data?
A) intuition
B) organizational behavioral studies
C) substantive evidence approach
D) preconceived notions
E) evidence based management
e
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32) What do the fundamental consistencies underlying the behavior of all individuals enable
researchers to do?
A) observe human behavior
B) systematize human behavior
C) research human behavior
D) predict human behavior
E) detect human behavior
d (exam)
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33) Analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific
evidence all constitute aspects of study.
A) organizational
B) intuitive
C) theoretical
D) systematic
E) case-based
d (exam)
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36) Psychology’s major contributions to the field of organizational behavior have been primarily at
what level of analysis?
A) the level of the group
B) the level of the individual
C) the level of the organization
D) the level of the culture
E) the level of interacting groups
b
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37) Which behavioral science discipline is most focused on understanding individual behavior?
A) sociology
B) social psychology
C) psychology
D) anthropology
E) organizational behavior
c
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38) The science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and
other animals is known as .
A) psychiatry
B) psychology
C) sociology
D) political science
E) organizational behavior
b (exam)
30
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39) blends concepts from psychology and sociology.
A) Corporate strategy
B) Anthropology
C) Political science.
D) Social psychology
E) Archaeology
d
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40) The science that focuses on the influence people have on one another is .
A) psychology
B) anthropology
C) political science
D) social psychology
E) archaeology
d
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45) Which of the following fields has most helped us understand differences in fundamental values,
attitudes, and behavior among people in different countries?
A) anthropology
B) psychology
C) political science
D) operations research
E) psycholinguistics
a (exam)
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46) The subject of organizational culture has been most influenced by which behavioral science
discipline?
A) anthropology
B) psychology
C) social psychology
D) political science
E) corporate strategy
a (exam)
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49) In order to predict human behavior with any degree of accuracy, what sort of variables must be
taken into account?
A) global
B) general
C) dependent
D) non-reactive
E) contingency
e
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51) Which of the following OB topics is not central to managing employees’ fears about terrorism?
A) emotion
B) motivation
C) communication
D) leadership
E) work design
e (exam)
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56) What is the probable consequence of the fact that women significantly outnumber men on U.S.
college campuses?
A) Eventual parity in the number of men and women in the workforce.
B) An increase in the number of technical positions filled by women.
C) An increase in competition between men for professional and managerial jobs
D) A steady increase in the number of technical, professional, and managerial positions
E) A decrease in the competition for jobs in positions that have traditionally been filled by
women.
d
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61) According to management guru Tom Peters, almost all quality improvement comes from
of design, manufacturing, layout, processes, and procedures.
A) modification
B) stratification
C) integration
D) separation
E) simplification
e
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62) Today’s managers understand that the success of any effort at improving quality and
productivity must include .
A) process reengineering
B) quality management programs
C) customer service improvements
D) employees
E) manufacturing simplification
d
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65) Service industry jobs include all of the following except .
A) fast good counter worker
B) sales clerk
C) waiter
D) nurse
E) production line worker
e
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70) Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees’ work life
and personal life?
A) the creation of global organizations
B) communications technology allowing employees to work any time and from any place
C) organizations asking employees to put in longer hours
D) creation of flexible teams
E) the increase in dual career households
d (exam)
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71) What growth area in OB research concerns how organizations develop human strengths, foster
vitality and resilience, and unlock potential?
A) positive organizational scholarship
B) ethical behavioral research
C) balancing work-life conflict
D) networked organizational research
E) temporariness studies
a
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74) Which of the following has only recently been considered a primary dependent variable in
organizational behavior?
A) productivity
B) absenteeism
C) turnover
D) job satisfaction
E) organizational citizenship behavior
e
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77) Why did Sears try to improve the employee-customer interaction through training of its
employees?
A) to generate additional revenue
B) to decrease merchandise returns
C) to improve repeat customer business.
D) to increase job satisfaction
E) to lower complaints made about employee behavior
a
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78) What term is used to describe voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an
organization?
A) absenteeism
B) turnover
C) downsizing
D) truancy
E) social atrophy
b
45
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79) is discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job requirement, but
that promotes the effective functioning of the organization.
A) Productivity
B) Motivation
C) Organizational citizenship
D) Organizational behavior
E) Corporate strategy
c
46
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80) Individual-level independent variables include all of the following except .
A) leadership
B) learning
C) perception
D) motivation
E) decision-making
a
47
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81) When Ms. McKay develops a strategy for achieving her department’s goals, she is performing
the function of management.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) reacting
a
48
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82) When Ms. McKay determines which employees will do what tasks, she is performing the
function of management.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) reacting
b
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83) When Ms. McKay motivates her employees and attempts to resolve conflicts among department
members, she is performing the function of management.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) reacting
c
50
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84) When Ms. McKay compares projected sales to actual sales in her department, she is performing
the function of management.
A) planning
B) organizing
C) leading
D) controlling
E) reacting
d
51
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Josef Nobles has been a manager at Mountain Chemicals for five years. Hired for his expertise in project accounting, he
rose quickly through the ranks and is now the head of the accounting and finance department. Josef is viewed as the
rising star in the organization by his superiors.
85) According to Katz, the skills that Mr. Nobles was hired for were what type of skill?
A) human
B) conceptual
C) technical
D) controlling
E) directing
c
52
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86) Based on what little we know, we can conclude that according to Luthans, Mr. Nobles is
probably best at the management activity of .
A) networking
B) communicating
C) working with technology
D) controlling
E) directing
a
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87) Given the information we have, Mr. Nobles would probably be categorized by Luthans as what
type of manager?
A) effective
B) efficient
C) successful
D) productive
E) type A
c
54
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You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational
behavior. Represented are professors from psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, political science, and
industrial engineering.
88) The faculty member from should furnish information about personality, learning, and
motivation.
A) sociology
B) psychology
C) anthropology
D) political science
E) industrial engineering
b (exam)
55
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The manager at a construction site observes that he is spending a great deal of time interviewing prospective employees.
This is due to the large amount of absenteeism and turnover among his skilled workers. On questioning exiting
employees he discovers that many of them quit because they feel the workplace is too dangerous. In particular, several
foremen have stated that the need to get the job done quickly is more important than a few rules, and have gone as far as
to mock the courage of workers who question this attitude.
91) What is not a dependent variable that the manager wishes to explain in this case?
A) turnover
B) absenteeism
C) time spent interviewing new hires
D) deviant workplace behavior
E) the skill level of his workers
e
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97) Which of the following statements is true about the term “ability”, as it is used in the field of
organizational behavior?
A) It refers to an individual’s willingness to perform various tasks.
B) It is a current assessment of what an individual can do.
C) It refers exclusively to intellectual skills.
D) It refers exclusively to physical skills.
E) It is a prediction of future aptitude based on current attitudes.
b (exam)
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99) Which of the following is not a dimension of intellectual ability?
A) number aptitude
B) perceptual speed
C) spatial visualization
D) dynamic flexibility
E) social aptitude
d
58
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100) What is a factor of intelligence that suggests that it makes sense to talk about overall
intelligence?
A) general mental ability
B) intelligent quotient
C) ability
D) cultural intelligence
E) perceptual speed
a
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101) Which of the following is not one of the nine basic abilities involved in the performance of
physical tasks?
A) stamina
B) dynamic flexibility
C) speed
D) body coordination
E) trunk strength
c
60
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102) Which of the following is not a biographical characteristic?
A) political affiliation
B) age
C) sex
D) tenure
E) race
a
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103) What will be the largest demographic change in the U.S. workforce in the next decade?
A) increasing ethnic diversity
B) a fall in married workers
C) increasing age of workers
D) decreasing tenure of workers
E) more women in the workforce than men
c
62
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104) Research shows that which of the following is likely to decrease as a worker grows older?
A) productivity
B) likelihood of quitting
C) absenteeism
D) vacation days taken
E) work ethic
b (exam)
63
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111) Which of the following statements concerning tenure is not true?
A) Recent evidence demonstrates a positive relationship between seniority and job
productivity.
B) Tenure does not appear to be a good predictor of employee productivity.
C) Tenure is a potent variable in explaining turnover.
D) Tenure and satisfaction are positively related.
E) Tenure and organizational investment are negatively related
e
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112) Studies indicate that which of the following tends to decrease with increased tenure?
A) job satisfaction
B) productivity
C) absenteeism
D) raises and promotion
E) efficiency
c
65
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119) Experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov led to what theory?
A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) social learning
D) method reproduction
E) behavior shaping
a (exam)
66
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120) What role did the meat play in Pavlov’s experiment with dogs?
A) an unconditioned response
B) a conditioned stimulus
C) a conditioned response
D) a reconditioned stimulus
E) an unconditioned stimulus
e
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121) Classical conditioning would view which of the following as most likely to be a conditioned
response?
A) wincing when you stub your toe
B) driving on the right side of the road
C) flinching when startled by a loud noise
D) looking for shelter when the sky turns gray
E) mouth watering when you eat delicious food
d
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122) In Pavlov’s experiment, the bell was a/an .
A) unconditioned stimulus
B) unconditioned response
C) conditioned stimulus
D) conditioned response
E) none of the above
c
69
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123) Which of the following is not true of classical conditioning?
A) Classical conditioning is passive.
B) Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors.
C) Learning a conditioned response involves building an association between a conditioned
stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus.
D) A neutral stimulus takes on the properties of a conditioned stimulus.
E) Classical conditioning is different in many respects from operant conditioning.
d
70
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124) When Joe gets stressed he often drinks chamomile tea. This calms him since he associates
chamomile tea drinking with happy visits with his grandmother in his childhood. The calm
feeling brought on by the tea is an example of which of the following?
A) classical conditioning
B) operant conditioning
C) sensory learning
D) social learning
E) shaping
a
71
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125) Why does classical conditioning theory fail to adequately describe behavior in the workplace?
A) Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is reflexive rather than voluntary.
B) Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is emitted rather than elicited.
C) Most behavior of individuals in the workplace is complex.
D) It is very difficult to determine exactly which conditioned stimulus elicits which response
in the workplace.
E) Classical conditioning works well describing animal behavior but not human behavior.
b
72
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126) Operant conditioning argues that .
A) behavior is reflexive
B) behavior is unlearned
C) behavior is a function of its consequences
D) the tendency to repeat a behavior is very strong
E) the tendency to repeat a behavior is instinctual
c
73
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127) Which of the following researchers thought that reinforcement was the central factor involved in
behavioral change?
A) Pavlov B) Fayol C) Skinner D) Deming E) Surber
c (exam)
74
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130) According to operant conditioning, when a behavior is not reinforced, what happens to the
probability of that behavior occurring again?
A) It increases.
B) It declines.
C) It remains unchanged.
D) It becomes zero.
E) It may increase or decrease based on other factors.
b (exam)
75
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131) What do we call the view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience?
A) situational learning theory
B) classical learning
C) social learning theory
D) hands-on learning experience
E) the Pavlov principle
c
76
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135) Four processes have been found to determine the influence that a model will have on an
individual. Which of the following is not one of those processes?
A) attentional processes
B) retention processes
C) motor reproduction processes
D) reinforcement processes
E) consequential processes
e
77
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136) Which of the following processes deals with how well an individual remembers a model’s action
after it is no longer readily available?
A) attitudinal
B) retention
C) motor reproduction
D) reinforcement
E) attention
b
78
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137) What do we call the practice of reinforcing closer and closer approximations of a desired
behavior?
A) modeling
B) shaping
C) classical conditioning
D) social learning
E) aping
b
79
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139) Using shaping, which of the following is not a method that can be used to change behavior?
A) negative reinforcement
B) punishment
C) counseling
D) positive reinforcement
E) extinction
c
80
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142) Suspending an employee for dishonest behavior is an example of which method of shaping
behavior?
A) extinction
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) poor planning
E) reaction
c
81
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146) The corporate audit staff makes a series of randomly timed, unannounced visits to a company
office. On each visit they check the records to see that they are up to date and correct. These
visits are an example of which of the following?
A) positive reinforcement
B) variable-interval reinforcement schedule
C) continuous reinforcement schedule
D) fixed reinforcement schedule
E) static response method
b
82
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147) In which reinforcement schedule is a reward provided after a given number of responses?
A) variable-ratio
B) fixed-ratio
C) variable-interval
D) fixed-interval
E) viable
b
83
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148) According to research, which of the following is a schedule of reinforcement that promotes the
greatest resistance to extinction?
A) continuous
B) fixed interval
C) variable interval
D) fixed ratio
E) negative
c
84
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150) The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to as
.
A) classical conditioning
B) self-management
C) reengineering
D) OB Mod
E) social modeling
d
85
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153) Who said “Give me a child at birth and I can make him into anything you want”?
A) B.F. Skinner
B) Ivan Pavlov
C) Sigmund Freud
D) James Emery
E) Ben Franklin
a (exam)
86
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You are the first-line supervisor for a group of employees who make cheese slicers. Their job is not terribly interesting or
challenging and you have noticed that they are frequently tardy returning from their breaks. You have studied the
concept of shaping behavior and decide that you will try to apply it to this situation.
157) You praise Allen for returning on time from break. This is an example of .
A) negative reinforcement
B) positive reinforcement
C) extinction
D) social learning
E) modeling
b
87
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158) You want Allison to take an accounting course so that she can help with the bookkeeping.
Allison does not want to go to night school to take the course and has been resisting. You know
that her least favorite duty is preparing payroll. You tell her that she will be given extra help
with preparing payroll whenever she takes an accounting class. This is an example of .
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
E) classical conditioning
a (exam)
88
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159) Sam is late coming back to work and you dock his pay. This is an example of .
A) positive reinforcement
B) negative reinforcement
C) punishment
D) extinction
E) classical conditioning
c (exam)
89
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162) John’s attendance has historically been unreliable and you have decided to use reinforcement
and compliment him when his attendance record shows improvement. The most effective
schedule of reinforcement will probably be .
A) variable-interval intermittent
B) fixed-interval intermittent
C) continuous
D) punishment-based
E) shaped
c
90
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167) What is the process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in
order to give meaning to their environment?
A) interpretation
B) environmental analysis
C) social verification
D) outlook
E) perception
e (exam)
91
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169) What are the three classes of factors that influence perception?
A) factors in the setting, factors in the environment, and factors in the motives
B) factors in the perceiver, factors in the target, and factors in the situation
C) factors in the character, factors in knowledge, and factors in experience
D) factors in the personality, factors in the character, and factors in the values
E) factors in the senses, factors in the surroundings, and factors in the lighting
b
92
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170) Two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently. Where do the factors
that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside?
A) the perceivers
B) the target
C) the timing
D) the context
E) the situation
a (exam)
93
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173) Which of the following is not true about our perceptions of a target?
A) Objects that are close together will be perceived together rather than separately.
B) Persons that are similar to each other tend to be grouped together.
C) Targets are usually looked at in isolation.
D) Motion, sounds, size, and other attributes of a target shape the way we see it.
E) Objects that are distant from one another will be perceived separately rather than as a
group.
c
94
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175) What is the most relevant application of perception concepts to OB?
A) the perceptions people form about each other
B) the perceptions people form about their employer
C) the perceptions people form about their culture
D) the perceptions people form about society
E) the perceptions people form about external reality
a (exam)
95
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176) What is the name of the theory that deals with how we explain behavior differently depending
on the meaning we assign to the actor?
A) behavioral theory
B) judgment theory
C) selective perception theory
D) attribution theory
E) equality theory
d
96
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179) In attribution theory, what is distinctiveness?
A) whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in different situations
B) whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations
C) whether an individual displays consistent behaviors in similar situations
D) whether an individual displays different behaviors in similar situations
E) whether an individual displays different behavior from other people
b (exam)
97
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180) What term is used for the extent to which an individual displays different behaviors in different
situations?
A) continuity
B) integrity
C) stability
D) flexibility
E) distinctiveness
e (exam)
98
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181) What does consensus refer to in attribution theory?
A) There is general agreement about a perception.
B) Different people respond the same way in the same situation.
C) There is general agreement about how people desire to respond to the same situation.
D) Different people perceive a situation similarly.
E) All people behave precisely the same way in certain situations.
b
99
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182) If everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, attribution theory
states that the behavior shows .
A) consensus
B) similarity
C) reliability
D) consistency
E) stability
a
100
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183) If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows
.
A) distinctiveness
B) consensus
C) consistency
D) continuity
E) stability
c
101
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184) Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. How would attribution theory describe
this behavior?
A) It shows consensus.
B) It shows similarity.
C) It shows reliability.
D) It shows consistency.
E) It shows distinctiveness.
d
102
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185) The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to .
A) attribute it to interpretation
B) attribute it to internal causes
C) attribute it to consensus
D) attribute it to external causes
E) attribute it to distinctiveness
b
103
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186) What sort of actions is most likely to be attributed to external causes?
A) actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus, and high consistency
B) actions that have high distinctiveness, high consensus, and low consistency
C) actions that have high distinctiveness, low consensus, and low consistency
D) actions that have low distinctiveness, low consistency, and high consensus
E) actions that have low distinctiveness, low consensus, and low consistency
c oder e
104
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187) What term is used for the tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and
overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of
others?
A) fundamental attribution error
B) self-serving bias
C) selective perception
D) consistency
E) actor bias
a
105
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188) Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you were late back from lunch, he
assumed that you had simply taken too much time. He never considered that the elevators were
out and you had to walk up 10 flights of stairs. Your boss is guilty of .
A) self-serving bias
B) selective perception
C) fundamental attribution error
D) inconsistency
E) stereotyping
c
106
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189) What term is used for the tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal
factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors?
A) fundamental attribution error
B) self-serving bias
C) consistency
D) selective perception
E) stereotyping
b
107
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202) Jenny is being interviewed for a position as an editor. At the start of the interview she is
flustered and repeatedly mispronounces the name of the company she is applying to work for.
She thinks the rest of the interview goes very well and she is confident about getting the job.
Why might her confidence be misplaced?
A) Most employment decisions have been made before the interview is conducted.
B) Most interviewers make their decision by the first 5 minutes of the interview.
C) Employers gain most of their knowledge of a potential employee’s skill set through
interviewing.
D) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate.
E) Interviewers will use stereotypes to judge her, so what she says and does at the interview
will be of little importance
d
108
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203) Leone thinks that because her employee Josef went to an Ivy League college he is very
knowledgeable, and always asks his opinion on the firm’s investments. In reality, Josef knows
very little about investing, but makes sure he reads up on it so that he can give an informed
opinion to Leone. What has occurred in this situation?
A) profiling
B) a self-fulfilling prophecy
C) a self-serving bias
D) the fundamental attribution error
E) a projection event
b
109
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207) What is the first step in the rational decision-making model?
A) developing alternatives
B) defining the problem
C) identifying the decision criteria
D) weighing the decision criteria
E) collecting relevant data
b (exam)
110
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214) What is perhaps the least rational way of making a decision?
A) to remain objective
B) to rely on intuition
C) to use bounded rationality
D) to use a conscious thought-process
E) to use complete information
b
111
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218) Avoiding making decisions on Friday the 13th can be an example of which bias?
A) representative
B) commitment
C) randomness
D) confirmation
E) substitution
c
112
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237) Jim is a student who cannot work at writing a paper for more than 30 minutes, yet he can spend
many hours writing comments on blogs. What accounts for the change in motivation in this
case?
A) his ability
B) the situation
C) his personality
D) the congruence
E) the structure of the task
b
113
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238) Motivation is best defined as a process that .
A) results in a level of effort
B) intensifies an individual’s efforts
C) accounts for an individual’s efforts toward attaining a goal
D) meets an individual’s needs
E) stabilizes over time
c
114
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239) What are the three key elements of motivation?
A) reactance, congruence, and circumstance
B) interest, activity, and reward
C) awareness, effort, and outcome
D) stimulation, progress, and achievement
E) intensity, direction, and persistence
e (exam)
115
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240) What is the most well-known theory of motivation?
A) theories X and Y
B) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
C) two-factor theory
D) motivator-hygiene theory
E) cognitive evaluation theory
b
116
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241) Maslow’s hierarchy has five levels of needs. Which of the following is not one of those levels?
A) safety needs
B) social needs
C) animal needs
D) self-actualization needs
E) physiological needs
c (exam)
117
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242) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs arranges those needs in which of the following orders?
A) physiological, esteem, safety, social, and self-actualization
B) physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization
C) safety, physiological, esteem, social, and self-actualization
D) physiological, social, safety, esteem, and self-actualization
E) safety, physiological, social, esteem, and self-actualization
b
118
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243) Which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s hunger, thirst, and need
for sex?
A) safety
B) physiological
C) social
D) esteem
E) psychological
b
119
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244) Danielle wants to become a surgeon, not only because achieving this goal will give her
self-respect and autonomy, but also because she wants a job with high status and recognition
from others. Which of Maslow’s needs is Danielle trying to fill?
A) self-actualization
B) social
C) esteem
D) psychological
E) safety
c
120
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245) Hans derives a great sense of belongingness, acceptance and friendship from his relationships
with his extended family. Which of Maslow’s needs is Hans fulfilling through these
relationships?
A) lower-order
B) self-actualization
C) esteem
D) social
E) physiological
d
121
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246) In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the term used for the drive to become what one is
capable of becoming?
A) perfection
B) self-actualization
C) hypo-glorification
D) self-esteem
E) attainment
b
122
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247) According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating?
A) when it is substantially satisfied
B) it never stops motivating
C) when one returns to a lower level need
D) when one chooses to move to a higher level need
E) only when it is completely satisfied
a
123
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248) Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow?
A) physiological, safety, social
B) safety, social, esteem
C) esteem, self-actualization
D) social, esteem, self-actualization
E) recognition, pay, admiration
d
124
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250) What is the primary organizational factor that satisfies people’s physiological needs?
A) their relationships with co-workers
B) recognition
C) pay
D) admiration
E) their position within the organization
c
125
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251) Who developed ERG theory?
A) McClelland
B) Maslow
C) Alderfer
D) Ouchi
E) Dieckmann
c (exam)
126
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252) Hunger, thirst, sex, pay, and physical work environment are examples of which of Alderfer’s
needs?
A) existence
B) safety
C) growth
D) physiological
E) subsistence
a
127
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255) ERG’s needs include the intrinsic component from Maslow’s esteem category and the
characteristics included under self-actualization.
A) existence
B) relatedness
C) growth
D) physiological
E) psychophysical
c
128
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258) What is the major problem with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs in organizational behavior?
A) It is difficult to apply to the workplace.
B) It is vague as to how a workplace can satisfy higher-order needs.
C) Its terminology tends to alienate those to whom it is applied.
D) It is almost impossible to assess how well an individual has a particular need filled.
E) There is little evidence that needs are structured or operate in the way it describes
e
129
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259) Which of the following theories was proposed by Douglas McGregor?
A) hierarchy of needs theory
B) Theories X and Y
C) two-factor theory
D) ERG theory
E) expectancy theory
b (exam)
130
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260) How would a Theory X manager view employees?
A) seeking responsibility
B) needing to be coerced to achieve goals
C) viewing work as a normal daily activity
D) exercising self control
E) not motivated by rewards
b (exam)
131
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261) A Theory Y manager would assume that employees would .
A) dislike work
B) need to be controlled
C) avoid responsibility
D) exercise self direction
E) attempt to avoid work
d (exam)
132
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262) Which of the following is a behavior that would most likely be exhibited by a Theory X
manager?
A) She lets her employees choose their own goals.
B) She trusts her employees to use discretion in most matters.
C) She strictly controls the details of any project she is managing.
D) She delegates authority extensively to junior managers.
E) She honestly informs her employees of the likelihood that they will lose their jobs
c (exam)
133
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263) Two managers are talking about how they get the best out of their employees: Jo: “I tell my
employees that times are tough and there is no way of telling when the guys in head office
might try to downsize. Let me tell you, a bit of fear keeps them focused on the task at hand.”
Chris “I tell them that head office is making them more responsible for deciding how to do their
work. The increased sense of ownership they have makes productivity go way up” How would
these managers be best characterized by Douglas McGregor?
A) Both hold Theory X assumptions.
B) Both hold Theory Y assumptions.
C) Chris holds Theory X assumptions; Jo holds Theory Y assumptions.
D) Jo holds Theory X assumptions; Chris holds Theory Y assumptions.
E) The statements would not indicate that either manager is predisposed to either Theory X
or Theory Y assumptions.
d (exam)
134
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264) Someone subscribing to theory X would agree with which of the following statements?
A) Individuals are dominated by Maslow’s lower level needs.
B) Individuals are dominated by Maslow’s higher level needs.
C) Individuals are not clearly dominated by any particular level of Maslow’s hierarchy of
needs.
D) Individuals are in reality independent of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.
E) Individuals are dominated by their needs in a situational context rather than in a strict
hierarchy.
a (exam)
135
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265) What other name is the two-factor theory known by?
A) theories X and Y
B) motivator-hygiene theory
C) hierarchy of needs theory
D) satisfaction/dissatisfaction theory
E) minimal justification theory
b (exam)
136
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266) Who proposed a two-factor theory?
A) Maslow
B) McClelland
C) Surber
D) Alderfer
E) Herzberg
e (exam)
137
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267) Two-factor theory suggests that dissatisfaction is caused by extrinsic factors. Which of the
following is an example of such a factor?
A) advancement
B) working conditions
C) achievement
D) recognition
E) nature of the work itself
b (exam)
138
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268) Which of the following is not true about the two-factor theory?
A) Working conditions are characterized as hygiene factors.
B) Intrinsic factors are motivators.
C) A job becomes satisfying when the dissatisfying characteristics are removed.
D) Responsibility is a satisfier.
E) Hygiene factors are demotivators.
c (exam)
139
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270) Which of the following would be considered a motivator in the two-factor theory?
A) salary
B) supervision
C) working conditions
D) bonuses
E) responsibility
e
140
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271) What continuum in the two-factor theory is made up of the hygiene factors?
A) no dissatisfaction to dissatisfaction
B) no dissatisfaction to satisfaction
C) satisfaction to no satisfaction
D) satisfaction to dissatisfaction
E) dissatisfaction to exit behavior
a
141
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272) Which of the following is a not a criticism of the two-factor theory?
A) No overall measure of satisfaction is utilized.
B) The research methodology does not examine productivity.
C) The theory is inconsistent with previous research.
D) The system used by raters is too rigid and not open to interpretation.
E) He assumed a strong relationship between satisfaction and productivity.
d
142
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273) McClelland’s theory of needs concentrates on which three needs?
A) achievement, realization, and acceptance
B) achievement, power, and affiliation
C) power, acceptance, and confirmation
D) affiliation, control, and realization
E) control, status, and relationships
b
143
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275) According to McClelland, individuals who have a desire to excel and to succeed are high in
.
A) nPow B) nAch C) nMot D) nAff E) nSync
b
144
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276) According to McClelland, what is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not
have behaved otherwise?
A) the need for power
B) the need for achievement
C) the need for affiliation
D) the need for control
E) the need for social validation
a
145
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277) How does McClelland define the need for affiliation?
A) drive to excel, to strive to succeed.
B) need to make others behave in a novel way
C) desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships
D) same as Maslow’s social need
E) all of the above
c
146
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279) A manager wishes to motivate a sales employee who is a high achiever. According to
McClelland, which of the following sales territories should be assigned to such a salesperson?
A) one where he is loosely controlled and he is certain to meet his sales targets
B) one where he is closely controlled and there is a moderate chance he will exceed his sales
targets
C) one where he is loosely controlled and there is a moderate chance he will exceed his sales
targets
D) one where he is closely controlled and there is a small chance he will greatly exceed his
sales targets
E) one where he is loosely controlled and there is a small chance he will greatly exceed his
sales targets
c
147
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280) You are supervising a team leader in charge of training employees to use a new phone system.
According to McClelland, which of the following courses of action will best ensure this
employee stays motivated in his task?
A) Trust him to do the job independently, and do not give feedback until the project is
completed.
B) Trust him to do the job independently, and do not give any feedback unless it is asked for.
C) Trust him to do the job independently, but do not fail to provide plenty of feedback.
D) Closely supervise him, and provide moderate amounts of feedback.
E) Closely supervise him, and provide a great deal of feedback
b
148
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281) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following except .
A) job situations with personal responsibility
B) a high degree of risk
C) overcoming obstacles
D) feedback
E) personal empowerment
b
149
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282) The issue of whether or not intrinsic and extrinsic motivators are independent is considered in
which theory?
A) expectancy
B) reinforcement
C) equity
D) cognitive evaluation
E) two-factor
e (exam)
150
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283) Cognitive evaluation theory suggests that which of the following would not serve to increase an
employee’s motivation?
A) base pay on performance
B) praise good performance
C) make the work interesting
D) support employee development
E) make pay not contingent on performance
a (exam)
151
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298) How do proponents of reinforcement theory view behavior?
A) as the result of a cognitive process
B) as environmentally caused
C) as a reflection of the inner state of the individual
D) as a function of one’s power need
E) as a product of heredity
b
152
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299) Which theory is, strictly speaking, not a theory of motivation since it does not concern itself with
what initiates behavior?
A) equity theory
B) expectancy theory
C) ERG theory
D) reinforcement theory
E) Theory X and Theory Y
d
153
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300) What is the major failure of reinforcement theory in explaining changes in behavior?
A) It cannot adequately describe the original behavior.
B) It originated in the studies of the responses of animals.
C) Most behavior is in fact environmentally caused.
D) It ignores the effect of rewards and punishments upon behavior.
E) It does not recognize the effect of feelings, attitudes, and other cognitive variables
e
154
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301) In equity theory, individuals assess the .
A) cost-benefit ratio
B) efficiency-effectiveness trade-off
C) quantity-quality trade-off
D) outcome-input ratio
E) pareto efficient outcome
d
155
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302) When individuals compare their outcomes and inputs against those of others, the framework is
.
A) equity
B) expectancy
C) JCM
D) SIC
E) JAV
a
156
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303) When people perceive an imbalance in their outcome-input ratio relative to others, .
A) reinforcement theory is imbalanced
B) expectancy theory is violated
C) equity tension is created
D) distributive justice is questioned
E) they seek to move to another position of authority
c (exam)
157
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314) Who developed expectancy theory?
A) McClelland
B) Maslow
C) House
D) Vroom
E) Sondak
d
158
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315) What theory attempts to measure the strength of one’s expectations and predict motivation?
A) expectancy theory
B) equity theory
C) goal setting theory
D) ERG theory
E) Surberist theory
a
159
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316) The theory that asserts that motivation depends upon an employee’s goals, and the belief that
productive behavior will get these goals accomplished, is called .
A) Herzberg’s dual-factor theory
B) McClelland’s three needs theory
C) Vroom’s expectancy theory
D) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
E) Alderfer’s ERG theory
c
160
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317) Helen is an office worker who processes health insurance forms. She has worked at her present
job for three years. Initially she was criticized by her supervisor for sloppy work, but in the
months after that improved considerably. Now she consistently processes her forms without
errors and above quota. However she has found her supervisor has not responded to the extra
effort she puts in, giving her no praise and no financial reward. Helen will most likely perceive
that there is a problem in which of the following relationships?
A) rewards-personal goals
B) performance-reward
C) effort-performance
D) rewards-effort
E) performance-achievement
b
161
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318) The degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a
desired outcome is defined by expectancy theory as what kind of relationship?
A) performance-reward
B) effort-performance
C) reward-personal goal
D) effort-satisfaction
E) agent-actor
a
162
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319) Which of the following is one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory?
A) reward-satisfaction relationship
B) satisfaction-performance relationship
C) rewards-personal goals relationship
D) effort-satisfaction relationship
E) performance-achievement relationship
c
163
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320) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an
individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the
individual is known as what sort of relationship?
A) performance-reward
B) effort-performance
C) rewards-personal goals
D) effort-satisfaction
E) performance-achievement
c
164
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304) Which of the following is not a comparison an employee can use in equity theory?
A) self-inside
B) self-goal
C) other-outside
D) self-outside
E) other-inside
b
165
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305) Which of the following is not true about referent comparisons in equity theory?
A) Both men and women prefer same-sex comparisons.
B) Employees in sex-segregated jobs use more cross-sex comparisons.
C) Employees with long tenure rely more heavily on co-workers for comparisons.
D) Upper-level employees make more other-outside comparisons.
E) Those with higher amounts of education tend to have better information about people in
other organizations.
b
166
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71) What growth area in OB research concerns how organizations develop human strengths, foster
vitality and resilience, and unlock potential?
A) positive organizational scholarship
B) ethical behavioral research
C) balancing work-life conflict
D) networked organizational research
E) temporariness studies
a
167
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324) A theory based on “needs” is the premise for theories by all of the following except .
A) McClelland
B) Alderfer
C) McGregor
D) Maslow
E) Vroom
e
168
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You are a new employee with Acme, Inc. Your supervisor has explained your job to you and has indicated that you will
have a great deal of control over your job once you become proficient at it. He compliments your history of accepting
responsibility and suggests that you are to feel free to offer constructive criticism about the way that your job is
structured.
328) Your supervisor seems to possess assumptions.
A) Theory T
B) Theory V
C) Theory W
D) Theory X
E) Theory Y
e
169
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329) Which of the following is something you would not expect your supervisor to believe?
A) Employees view work as natural.
B) The average person will seek responsibility.
C) Workers place security above most other factors.
D) The ability to make innovative decisions is not necessarily the sole province of managers.
E) Workers are generally reliable.
c
170
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333) What action would probably most motivate the employees?
A) improving in working conditions
B) fixing the heating system
C) receiving recognition for a job well done
D) having the supervisor “hang around” more
E) relying more on punishment for poor performance
c
171
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You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good
performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired
at a higher salary than you are now making.
337) Which of the following will you probably use to evaluate this situation?
A) equity
B) expectancy
C) goal setting
D) reinforcement
E) self-enhancement
a
172
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338) Your referent comparison for equity theory is termed .
A) self-inside
B) self-outside
C) other-inside
D) other-outside
E) inside-outside
c
173
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375) Which of the following is not a finding of Elton Mayo’s Hawthorne studies?
A) A worker’s behavior and sentiments are closely related.
B) Group standards are highly effective in establishing individual worker output.
C) Money was less a factor in determining worker output than were group standards,
sentiments, and security.
D) Competition between groups will maximize group output.
E) Group influences are significant in affecting individual behavior.
d (exam)
174
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376) What term is used for the process by which an individual’s desire for acceptance by the group
and the pressure by the group on individual members to match its standards results in a change
in individual attitudes and behaviors?
A) conformity
B) coercion
C) commitment
D) convergence
E) confluence
a (exam)
175
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389) What term is used for the degree to which group members are attracted to one another and are
motivated to stay in the group?
A) cohesiveness
B) integration
C) sociability
D) reliability
E) interdependence
a (exam)
176
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390) Which of the following is not likely to increase group cohesiveness?
A) a high level of group productivity
B) members spending a lot of time together
C) the existence of external threats
D) the group is physically isolated
E) bonding opportunities exist between members
c
177
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391) What will happen if group cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low?
A) Internal conflict will be high.
B) Internal conflict will be low.
C) Productivity will be high.
D) Productivity will be low.
E) It will have little effect on internal conflict or productivity
d
178
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417) Research indicates that poor is probably the most frequently cited source of
interpersonal conflict.
A) motivation
B) leadership
C) training
D) communication
E) hygiene
d (exam)
179
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418) Individuals spend nearly percent of their waking hours communicating.
A) 60 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90
b
180
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419) Communication must include both the and the understanding of meaning.
A) transportation
B) interpretation
C) triaging
D) transference
E) intention
d (exam)
181
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426) The means by which a communication is passed is called .
A) a medium
B) a conduit
C) a conductor
D) a transmission
E) Surberism
a
182
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427) The medium through which communication travels is called a .
A) transmission
B) message
C) media
D) channel
E) vessel
d
183
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428) In the communication process, which of the following steps occurs first?
A) transmitting
B) decoding
C) encoding
D) understanding
E) analysis
c
184
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429) During communication, the initiates a message by encoding a thought.
A) receiver B) channel C) sender D) speaker E) leader
c
185
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0
430) The product of a sender’s encoding is the .
A) channel
B) message
C) transmission
D) medium
E) all of the above
b
186
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431) John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of
.
A) encoding
B) communicating
C) messaging
D) channeling
E) cryptography
a (exam)
187
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432) The receiver of a communication is most likely to a message.
A) explain
B) reproduce
C) reflect
D) translate
E) discard
d
188
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433) Formal channels traditionally follow the within an organization.
A) communication chain
B) authority chain
C) influence chain
D) transmission chain
E) social chain
b
189
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435) What step determines whether understanding has been achieved during the communication
process?
A) decoding
B) feedback
C) channel
D) encoding
E) transmission
b
190
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436) The communication used by managers to provide job instructions is communication.
A) downward
B) lateral
C) formal
D) directional
E) diagonal
a
191
Kartenlink
0
449) Which of the following types of networks is most likely to promote accuracy?
A) chain
B) direct
C) wheel
D) all-channel
E) circle
a
192
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450) What small-group network is most effective for facilitating the emergence of a leader?
A) chain
B) all-channel
C) wheel
D) direct
E) box
c
193
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451) What small-group network best serves to promote high member satisfaction?
A) direct
B) circle
C) wheel
D) all-channel
E) box
d
194
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452) A(n) network of communication would most likely be found in a rigid three-level
organization.
A) vertical
B) direct
C) chain
D) all-channel
E) box
c
195
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453) A(n) communication network occurs when a checkout clerk reports to a department
manager, who in turn reports to a store manager, who reports to a regional manager.
A) direct
B) all-channel
C) vertical
D) chain
E) horizontal
d
196
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454) When all communication is channeled through one central figure, a communication
network exists.
A) direct B) chain C) lateral D) wheel E) box
d
197
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455) In a(n) communication network, any group member can actively communicate with
any other member.
A) wheel
B) all-channel
C) interpersonal
D) circle
E) free
b
198
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456) The communication network is best illustrated by self-managed teams.
A) wheel
B) all-channel
C) interpersonal
D) circle
E) box
b
199
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481) Variables that influence the language a person uses include all of the following except .
A) age
B) incentives
C) education
D) cultural background
E) nationality
b
200
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484) Tannen’s research indicates that men use talk to , while women use it to .
A) emphasize status; create connections
B) get promotions; problem-solve
C) establish blame; gossip
D) create networks; emphasize individualism
E) establish interdependence; create relationships
a
201
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487) Individuals from which of the following countries would be most likely to rely essentially on
words to convey meaning?
A) China
B) Saudi Arabia
C) Vietnam
D) Germany
E) Greece
d
202
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467) What form of electronic communications is in “real” time?
A) blogs
B) networking software
C) e-mail
D) text messaging
E) instant messaging
e
203
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515) The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest
echelon and clarifies who reports to whom is termed .
A) chain of command
B) authority
C) span of control.
D) unity of command
E) web of authority
a (maybe)
204
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516) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is
termed .
A) chain of command
B) authority
C) power
D) unity of command
E) leadership
b (maybe)
205
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517) The principle helps preserve the concept of an unbroken line of authority.
A) span of control
B) chain of command
C) cross-functionality
D) centralization
E) unity-of-command
b (maybe)
206
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518) The unity-of-command principle states which of the following?
A) Managers should limit their oversight to a maximum of 12 employees.
B) Managers should oversee 1 · 4 employees on average.
C) An individual should be directly responsible to only one supervisor.
D) Managers should provide direction to their employees in a unified fashion.
E) Employees should report directly to two supervisors to maintain task balance.
c (maybe)
207
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519) The refers to the number of subordinates that a manager directs.
A) span of control
B) unity of command
C) chain of command
D) decentralization principle
E) leadership web
a (exam)
208
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520) Which of the following is a drawback of a narrow span of control? It .
A) reduces effectiveness
B) is more efficient
C) encourages overly tight supervision and discourages employee autonomy
D) empowers employees
E) increases participatory decision-making
c
209
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521) Which of the following is not a drawback of a narrow span of control?
A) It is expensive.
B) It makes vertical communication in the organization more complex.
C) Supervisors may lose control of their employees.
D) It encourages overly tight supervision.
E) It helps increase organizational efficiency.
c
210
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522) If you have a narrow span of control, you have a(n) organization.
A) efficient B) short C) tall D) matrix E) fat
b
211
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524) are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up
decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees.
A) Wider spans of control
B) Narrower spans of control
C) Matrix structures
D) Simple structures
E) None of the above
a
212
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526) The best definition for centralization is a situation in which decision making .
A) is pushed down to lower level employees
B) is concentrated at a single point in the organization
C) depends on the situation
D) is completed in each department and then sent to the president for review
E) is diffused among a large segment of employees
b
213
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525) Which one of the following dichotomies of organizational structure specifically defines where
decisions are made?
A) complexity/simplicity
B) formalization/informalization
C) centralization/decentralization
D) specialization/enlargement
E) affectivity/reflexivity
c
214
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527) In an organization that has high centralization, .
A) the corporate headquarters is located centrally to branch offices
B) all top level officials are located within the same geographic area
C) action can be taken more quickly to solve problems
D) new employees have a great deal of legitimate authority
E) top managers make all the decisions and lower level managers merely carry out directions
e
215
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528) The more that lower-level personnel provide input or are actually given the discretion to make
decisions, the more there is within an organization.
A) centralization
B) disempowerment
C) work specialization
D) departmentalization
E) decentralization
e
216
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536) The key component underlying bureaucracies is .
A) flexibility
B) standardization
C) dual lines of authority
D) wide span of control
E) the organizational pyramid
b
217
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537) A bureaucracy is characterized by all of the following except .
A) highly routine operating tasks
B) formalized rules and regulations
C) tasks that are grouped into functional departments
D) decentralized decision making
E) specialization
d
218
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538) The strength of the simple structure lies in its .
A) efficiency
B) simplicity
C) centralization
D) span of control
E) specialization
b
219
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539) Which of the following is not a weakness of the simple structure?
A) It is risky.
B) It is prone to information overload.
C) There is little unity of command.
D) It can lead to slower decision making.
E) It is often insufficient in larger organizations
c
220
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540) The structure that creates dual lines of authority is the .
A) organizational structure
B) bureaucracy
C) matrix structure
D) virtual organization
E) simple structure
c
221
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541) The matrix structure combines which two forms of departmentalization?
A) process and functional
B) functional and product
C) product and process
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
b
222
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542) The structure violates the unity of command concept.
A) simple B) virtual C) matrix D) team E) web
c
223
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543) The strength of the matrix structure is its .
A) ability to facilitate coordination
B) economies of scale
C) adherence to chain of command
D) standardization
E) social empowerment
a
224
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544) The major disadvantage of the matrix structure is .
A) the confusion it creates
B) its propensity to foster power struggles
C) the stress it places on individuals
D) none of the above
E) all of the above
a
225
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546) The virtual is also called the or organization.
A) network; modular
B) team; social
C) pyramid; multi-level
D) boundaryless; global
E) simple; unitary
a
226
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547) A small, core organization that outsources major business functions is a organization.
A) team
B) virtual
C) boundaryless
D) matrix
E) simple
b
227
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549) The virtual organization stands in sharp contrast to the typical bureaucracy that has many
vertical levels of management and where control is sought through .
A) ownership
B) teams
C) imposing limits
D) directives
E) manipulation
a
228
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551) The boundaryless organization relies heavily on .
A) information technology
B) efficient chains of command
C) the simple structure
D) the matrix structure
E) departmentalization
a
229
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552) The is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization,
a limited information network, and centralization.
A) mechanistic model
B) organic model
C) traditional model
D) bureaucracy organization
E) simple structure
a
230
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554) All of the following are characteristics of the organic model except .
A) cross-functional teams
B) narrow spans of control
C) cross-hierarchical teams
D) employee discretion
E) flatness
b
231
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555) Which of the following is not a determinant of an organization’s structure?
A) strategy
B) organization size
C) size of revenues
D) technology
E) All of the above are determinants of an organization’s structure.
c
232
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565) Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee
performance and satisfaction is most accurate?
A) There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction.
B) No evidence supports a relationship between span of control and employee performance.
C) The evidence generally indicates that work specialization contributes to lower employee
productivity.
D) Employees dislike routine work that makes minimal intellectual demands.
E) Large spans of control provide more distant supervision, thereby increasing employee
productivity.
b
233
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571) You have decided that since you are a novice at departmentalization, you will go with the most
popular method. You will probably choose .
A) function
B) product
C) process
D) customer
E) matrix
a
234
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572) Your company decides to establish southern, Midwestern, western, and eastern zones of
operation. Based on this expansion, you decide to implement departmentalization.
A) area
B) customer
C) geography
D) regional
E) matrix
c
235
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573) Your products fall into several categories with very different production methods for each
category. Because of this, you might consider departmentalizing by .
A) implementation
B) method
C) production
D) process
E) matrix
c
236
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574) You discover that your market is clearly divided between very different types of clients, with
different support needs. To respond to this market diversity, you will probably choose to
departmentalize by .
A) requirements
B) clients
C) support
D) customer
E) matrix
d
237
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576) Which of the following is a benefit of keeping the span of control to 5 or 6 employees?
A) It is expensive.
B) Vertical communication is more complex.
C) Decision making is slowed down.
D) Upper management is more available and in-touch.
E) none of the above
e
238
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577) In observing the departments in his division, Matthew notices that some managers with wide
spans of control seem to perform more effectively than other managers with similarly-sized
spans of control. Which of the following statements is most likely true regarding the
high-performing managers?
A) These managers are paid higher salaries than the low-performing managers.
B) These managers discourage employee autonomy, which produces more uniform
departmental results.
C) The employees within their departments tend to compete to reach productivity goals,
which boosts performance.
D) The employees within their departments have poor communication with each other.
E) The employees within their departments are highly skilled and very knowledgeable about
their jobs.
c
239
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580) The structure that combines functional and product departmentalization is the .
A) matrix structure
B) simple structure
C) bureaucracy
D) team structure
E) organizational pyramid
a
240
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581) You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together
specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The
structure probably best meets the definition of the .
A) matrix structure
B) expert structure
C) boundaryless structure
D) virtual structure
E) organizational pyramid
d (exam)
241
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583) You have decided to hire other organizations to perform many of the basic functions of your
business. You have hired an accounting firm to keep your records, a recruiting firm to handle
human resource functions, and a computer firm to handle all records. To keep costs down, you
are looking for other areas in which to outsource operations. You have chosen to operate your
business as a .
A) matrix organization
B) virtual organization
C) team structure
D) boundaryless structure
E) organizational pyramid
b
242
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584) Your new organization is looking for maximum flexibility. The most appropriate structure is
probably the .
A) matrix organization
B) virtual organization
C) team structure
D) network structure
E) organizational pyramid
a
243
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434) A receiver who translates a sender’s message is engaging in the process of .
A) encoding
B) decoding
C) transmission
D) feedback
E) recoding
b
Kartensatzinfo:
Autor: mariagrau25
Oberthema: Business Economics
Thema: Behavior, Managment and Organisation
Schule / Uni: Hanze Hogeschool
Ort: Groningen
Veröffentlicht: 12.04.2010
 
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